In the book of the “Islamic Personality” Volume III (The Origins of Jurisprudence), under the section "There is no ruling before the statement of the Shar’’" on page 28 (Arabic), I quote the text: “There is no action from man, or anything related with man’s action, except that it has a ruling in Shariah, and there is no ruling except by the presence of an evidence related to it specifically from the speech of the legislator, since there is no ruling before the statement of the Shariah’.
In the book The Islamic Personality “Ash-Shakhsiyah” Volume III on the topic (whatever leads to a Wajib is itself a Wajib) on page 44 (Arabic version) it states: “and whether the cause is Shar’i like the format regarding the obligatory freeing (of slaves)” as if he refers to the verse of thihar, in Allah’s saying...
Regarding the death penalty for Muhson, is Qothie categorized in Fiqh Islam? There are some scholars such as Sheikh Abu Zahrah who do not categorize it as Hudud punishment. It is even supported by Sheikh Mustafa Zarqa who states that it is categorized in the sentence of Takzir. How do you think about this issue?
But does obedience to Allah and His Messenger oblige obedience to the Hizb in all the commands and Ijtihad (opinions) that you have reached, which have difference in opinion to what I adopted previously. I give the example of women’s awra in front of their mahrams and Muslim women. Some scholars have agreed that it is from the navel to the knee, as well the menstruating woman reciting the Qur'an whose period is sometimes long? I would like a clarification because misunderstanding and lack of clarity raise a lot of confusion and arguments between us and often waste time.
I have a question on this subject ... Now I am working for a private institution, and it deducts from my wage for insurance and pensions. I want to take part of this amount of money that was deducted from me, but the institute obliges me to take a percentage on this amount, which is my right ... Is this permissible in Shariah?